1 [P.T.O.
8 / 1
Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (Hundred) questions. All questions
are compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only
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if any, should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-
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DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.
Written Test Paper , 2022
Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................
Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/ ......................... Signature of Applicant : ............................
Date of Examination: 28 / 01 / 2022 Signature of the Invigilator(s)
1. ..................................................
2. ..................................................
Test Booklet
Series
Time of Examination : .......................................
A
ACCOUNTANT
Test Booklet No .
8
Paper No.
2
3 [P.T.O.
1. Type of accounting which measures, reports
and analyse non-financial and financial
information to help in decision making is
called:
(A) Financial Accounting
(B) Management Accounting
(C) Cost Accounting
(D) Green Accounting
2. In cost accounting, purpose of variance
analysis is to:
(A) understand reasons for variances.
(B) take remedial measures.
(C) improve future performance.
(D) All of the above
3. Absorption Costing is also known as:
(A) Total Costing
(B) Committed Costing
(C) Target Costing
(D) Discretionary Costing
4. Which one of the following is not to be
considered for preparing a production
budget?
(A) The production plan of the
organization
(B) The Sales Budget
(C) Research and Development Budget
(D) Availability of Raw Materials
PART–A
8 / 2
5. Planning and control are done by
(A) top management
(B) lowest level of management
(C) all levels of management
(D) None of the above
6. The budgets are classified on the basis of
(A) Time
(B) Function
(C) Flexibility
(D) All of the above
7. In marginal costing, stock is valued
at _____
(A) Fixed Cost
(B) Variable Cost
(C) Inventory
(D) sales
8. Flexible budget requires a careful study of:
(A) Fixed, semi-fixed and variable
expenses
(B) Past and current expenses
(C) Overheads, selling and administrative
expenses
(D) None of the above
4
9. Depreciation is an example of:
(A) Fixed cost
(B) Variable cost
(C) Semi variable cost
(D) None of the above
10. Which statement best describes the role of
the management accountant?
(A) Management accountants prepare the
financial statements for an
organization.
(B) Management accountants facilitate the
decision making process within an
organization.
(C) Management accountants make the
principal decisions within an
organization.
(D) Management accountants are basically
information collectors.
11. The main objective of budgetary control is:
(A) to define the goal of the firm
(B) to coordinate different departments
(C) to plan to achieve its goals
(D) all of the above
12. Marginal costs is taken as equal to
(A) Prime Cost plus all variable overheads
(B) Prime Cost minus all variable
overheads
(C) Variable overheads
(D) None of the above
13. If budgets are prepared of a business concern
for a certain period taking each and every
function separately such budgets are
called _________.
(A) Separate Budgets
(B) Functional Budgets
(C) Both of them
(D) None of the above
14. Which of the following is not an example
of functional budget?
(A) Production budget
(B) Cost of production budget
(C) Materials budget
(D) None of the above
15. Which of the following is an essential of a
budget?
(A) It is prepared for a definite future
period
(B) It is a statement prepared prior to a
defined period of time
(C) The Budget is monetary and/or
quantitative statement of policy
(D) All of the above
5 [P.T.O.
16. When preparing a production budget, the
quantity to be produced equals
(A) sales quantity + opening inventory of
finished goods + closing inventory of
finished goods
(B) sales quantity – opening inventory of
finished goods + closing inventory of
finished goods
(C) sales quantity – opening inventory of
finished goods – closing inventory of
finished goods
(D) sales quantity + opening inventory of
finished goods – closing inventory of
finished goods
17. For which of the following would zero
based budgeting be most suitable?
(A) Building construction
(B) Mining company operations
(C) Transport company operations
(D) Government department activities
18. The management's time is saved by reporting
only the deviations from the predetermined
standards is called
(A) Management by objectives
(B) Budgetary Control
(C) Standard Costing
(D) Management by Exception
19. A budget that gives a summary of all the
functional budgets and projected Profit
and Loss A/c is known as
(A) Master budget
(B) Flexible budget
(C) Performance budget
(D) Discretionary budget
20. One of the following is not within the scope
of Management Accounting
(A) Formulation of policies
(B) Classification and collection of costs
(C) Planning and co-ordinating the
activities of the enterprise
(D) Decision making on alternative courses
of action
21. A firm has a capital of Rs. 10 lakhs, sales
of Rs. 5 lakhs, gross profit of Rs. 2 lakhs
and expenses of Rs. 1 lakh. The Net Profit
Ratio is:
(A) 50%
(B) 40%
(C) 20%
(D) 10%
22. In Current Ratio, the denominator is:
(A) Current Assets
(B) Current Liabilities
(C) Total Assets
(D) Total Liabilities
6
23. Current Assets Rs. 20,00,000; Current
Liabilities Rs. 10,00,000 and Stock
Rs. 2,00,000, then what is liquid ratio?
(A) 2 times
(B) 1.8 times
(C) 1.4 times
(D) None of these
24. Annual credit sales Rs. 4,00,000; Average
collection period 45 days (assume 360 days
in a year). What is Average debtors?
(A) Rs. 60,000
(B) Rs. 74,000
(C) Rs. 50,000
(D) Rs. 4,00,000
25. PAT of a company Rs. 100 lakhs and
number of equity shares of Rs. 10 each with
a capital of Rs. 50 lakhs, then EPS is:
(A) Rs. 2
(B) Rs. 1
(C) Rs. 10
(D) None of these
26. Degree of operating leverage is:
(A) EBIT / EBT
(B) Contribution / EBT
(C) Contribution / EBIT
(D) None of these
27. Cost of goods sold is Rs. 8000 and gross
margin is Rs. 5000 then revenue will be
(A) Rs. 3,000
(B) Rs. 5,000
(C) Rs. 8,000
(D) Rs. 13,000
28. Cash & Bank Rs. 20,000; Debtors
Rs. 2,00,000; Stock Rs. 2,80,000 and
Current Liabilities: Creditors Rs. 1,00,000;
Bills Payable Rs. 50,000. Then the working
capital is:
(A) Rs. 4,00,000
(B) Rs. 3,80,000
(C) Rs. 3,50,000
(D) Rs. 70,000
29. Gross margin is added to cost of sold goods
for calculating
(A) revenues
(B) selling price
(C) unit price
(D) bundle price
30. Cash Flow Statement is also known as
(A) Statement of Changes in Financial
Position on Cash basis
(B) Statement accounting for variation in
cash
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
7 [P.T.O.
31. Degree of financial leverage of business
indicates.
(A) Total risk
(B) Operating risk
(C) Financial risk
(D) None of these
32. Which of the following is a Profitability
Ratio?
(A) Proprietary Ratio
(B) Debt-equity Ratio
(C) Price Earnings Ratio
(D) Fixed Asset Ratio
33. EBIT = Rs. 1120000, PBT = Rs. 320000,
Fixed Costs = Rs. 700000, Operating
Leverage =
(A) 1.625
(B) 2.625
(C) 6.625
(D) 3.625
34. Which of the following is not a Source of
Fund?
(A) Issue of Capital
(B) Issue of Debenture
(C) Decrease in working capital
(D) Increase in working capital
35. Which of the following does not help to
increase Current Ratio?
(A) Issue of Debentures to buy Stock
(B) Issue of Debentures to pay Creditors
(C) Sale of Investment to pay Creditors
(D) Avail Bank Overdraft to buy Machine
36. "Shareholders Wealth" in a firm is reflected
by:
(A) the number of people employed in the
firm
(B) the book value of the firm's assets less
the book value of its liabilities
(C) the amount of salary paid to its
employees
(D) the market price per share of the firm
37. The excess of Current Assets over Current
Liabilities is called:
(A) Net Current Assets
(B) Net Working Capital
(C) Working Capital
(D) All of the above
38. Working Capital Management refers to a
Trade-off between _____________ and
Profitability.
(A) Liquidity
(B) Risk
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of the above
8
39. The term _______means manipulation of
accounts in a way so as to conceal vital
facts and present the financial statements in
a way to show a better position than what
it actually is.
(A) window dressing
(B) creative accounting
(C) window accounting
(D) modified accounting
40. IPO refers to ____________; the first time
a company comes to public to raise money.
(A) Immediate Public Offer
(B) Immediate Public Offering
(C) Initial Public Offer
(D) Initial Public Offering
41. Ratio analysis is the process of determining
and interpreting numerical relationships
based on _______.
(A) Financial values
(B) Financial statements
(C) Financial numerical information
(D) All of the above
42. The persons interested in the analysis
of financial statements can be grouped
as _________.
(A) Owners or investors
(B) Creditors
(C) Financial executives
(D) All of the above
43. Debt-equity Ratio is an example of _______.
(A) Short term solvency Ratio
(B) Long term solvency Ratio
(C) Profitability Ratio
(D) None of the above
44. In Cash Flow Statement, Cash includes
________________.
(A) cash on hand
(B) demand deposits with banks
(C) cash on hand and demand deposits
with banks
(D) cash on hand or demand deposits with
banks
45. Cash Flow Statement is _____________ for
Income Statement or Funds Flow Statement.
(A) not a substitute
(B) a substitute
(C) depends on situation
(D) None of the above
46. Funds Flow Statement reveals the change
in _______________ between two Balance
Sheet dates.
(A) Working capital
(B) Internal capital
(C) Share capital
(D) Both (A) and (C)
9 [P.T.O.
47. To financial analysts, "net working capital"
means the same thing as __________.
(A) total assets
(B) fixed assets
(C) current assets
(D) current assets minus current liabilities
48. The term optimal capital structure implies
that combination of external equity and
internal equity at which ………
(A) the overall cost of capital is minimised
(B) the overall cost of capital is maximised
(C) the market value of the firm is
minimised
(D) the market value of firm is greater than
the overall cost of capital
49. Net Income Approach to capital structure
decision was proposed by …….
(A) J. E. Walter
(B) M.H. Miller and D. Orr
(C) E. Solomon
(D) D. Durand
50. The 'Dividend-Payout Ratio' is equal to
(A) The Dividend yield plus the capital
gains yield
(B) Dividends per share divided by
Earning per Equity Share
(C) Dividends per share divided by par
value per share
(D) Dividends per share divided by current
price per share
51. Working Capital Management involves
financing and management of
(A) All Assets
(B) All Current Assets
(C) Cash and Bank Balance
(D) Receivables and Payables
52. All listed companies are required to prepare
(A) Funds Flow statement
(B) Cash Flow Statement
(C) Statement of Affairs
(D) All of the above
53. Ratio Analysis can be used to study liquidity,
turnover, profitability etc., of a firm. What
does Debt-Equity Ratio help to study?
(A) Solvency
(B) Liquidity
(C) Profitability
(D) Turnover
54. Profit & Loss Account is also called:
(A) Balance Sheet
(B) Income Statements
(C) Operating Profit
(D) Investment
10
55. Which of the following is the Payment
Gateway:
(A) RuPay
(B) PayTM
(C) Google Pay
(D) BHIM
56. A collection of interrelated records is
called a:
(A) Database
(B) Spreadsheet
(C) Management Information System
(D) Text File
57. What is DBMS?
(A) DBMS is a collection of queries
Database
(B) DBMS is a high-level language
Spreadsheet
(C) DBMS is a programming language
(D) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves
data Text File
58. Which type of data can be stored in the
database?
(A) Image oriented data
(B) Text, files containing data
(C) Data in the form of audio or video
(D) All of the above
59. Which of the following is not a type of
database?
(A) Hierarchical
(B) Network Text
(C) Distributed Data
(D) Decentralized
60. In a spreadsheet, letters are used to
represent-
(A) Cells
(B) Rows
(C) Column
(D) Blocks
61. Which of the following help us to see
patterns?
(A) Charts
(B) Graphs
(C) Spreadsheets
(D) Calculations
62. With regard to rent expenses paid in advance
of a non - profit organization which of the
following classification is correct
(A) Expense
(B) Liability
(C) Equity
(D) Assets
63. When was Make in India programme
launched?
(A) September 25, 2014
(B) October 2, 2015
(C) October 11, 2016
(D) July 15, 2015
11 [P.T.O.
64. Which of the following sector is not covered
in the Make in India programme?
(A) Automobiles
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Media and entertainment
(D) Education
65. How many sectors are targeted in the Make
in India programme?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 20
(D) 25
66. "Zero Defect Zero Effect" slogan is related
to which of the following scheme?
(A) Digital India
(B) Make in India
(C) Startup India
(D) Clean India mission
67. Investment professionals have a special
responsibility to act ethically because:
(A) the industry is heavily impacted by
regulations
(B) the profession has adopted a code of
ethics
(C) they are entrusted to protect client's
assets
(D) All of the above
68. Frank Douglas, CFA and Carl Sheen, CFA
are researching the coal mining industry in
Australia. They both conducted research and
made various site visits; however, mid-way
through the research, Sheen fell severely ill
and had to leave the project. Douglas
compiled the report incorporating Sheen's
analysis and research, but did not publish
his name on the research report because
Sheen did not agree with Douglas's final
recommendation for the industry. Did
Douglas violate any of the CFA Institute
Standards of Professional Conduct
(A) No
(B) Yes, with respect to misconduct
Make in India
(C) Yes, with respect to misrepresentation
(D) Can't be ascertained
69. According to the CFA Institute Code of
Ethics and Standards of Professional
Conduct, members in case of
oversubscription of issues will most likely
breach their duty to clients by:
(A) Prorating to all clients for whom the
issue is appropriate
(B) Avoiding odd-lot distributions
(C) Not forgoing any sales to themselves
(D) Can't be ascertained
70. ___________ are considered the moral
standards by which people judge behavior.
(A) Responsibilities
(B) Profession
(C) Professional Ethics
(D) Ethics
12
PART–B
71. Rojgar Bazaar 2.0 portal, which was seen
in the news recently, is associated with
which state/UT?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Assam
72. Which city has become the guest city in the
world to implement 100 percent paperless
strategy in its government functioning?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Tel Aviv
(C) Abu Dhabi
(D) Dubai
73. In which of the following year, Lucknow
pact was signed by Congress and Muslim
League?
(A) 1915
(B) 1916
(C) 1917
(D) 1918
74. Which of the following is/ are Constitutional
Body/Bodies.
1. GST Council
2. NITI Aayog
3. Election Commission
4. Union Public Service Commission
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All the above
75. Who won the 'Padma Vibhushan 2020'
award under the 'Public Affairs' category?
(A) Shinzo Abe
(B) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
(C) Sheikh Hasina
(D) K P Sharma Oli
76. Which of the following separates lesser
Himalayas from Shivalik?
(A) Suture Zone
(B) Main Central Thrust
(C) Great Boundary Fault
(D) Main Boundary Fault
77. What will be the 21st term in the series
3, 9, 15, ?
(A) 117
(B) 121
(C) 123
(D) 129
78. Hemoglobin:Iron:: Chlorophyll : ….?
(A) Copper
(B) Magnesium
(C) Cobalt
(D) Calcium
13 [P.T.O.
79. EWS quota introduced by Government
of India was implemented by which
constitutional amendment?
(A) 101st
(B) 103rd
(C) 102nd
(D) 105th
80. Kotla lake is situated in which of the
following district of Haryana?
(A) Mewat
(B) Faridabad
(C) Palwal
(D) Gurugram
81. Arrange the following districts in ascending
order in terms of population density as per
the Census of India 2011.
1. Hisar
2. Faridabad
3. Bhiwani
4. Gurugram
(A) 3-1-4-2
(B) 1-3-4-2
(C) 1-3-2-4
(D) 3-1-2-4
82. B is the husband of P, Q is the only grandson
of E, who is wife of D and Mother-in-Law
of P. How is B related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C) Son-in-Law
(D) Cousin
83. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched.
Vitamin Deficiency Diseases
1. Vitamin A Xerophthalmia
2. Vitamin B
2
Reddish Eyes
3. Vitamin D Rickets
4. Vitamin E Less Fertility
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All the above
84. Among six members P, Q, R, G, S, and M
sitting along a circle facing the centre.
I. R is between G and P.
II. M is between P and S.
What is the position of Q?
(A) To the immediate left of G
(B) To the immediate right of S
(C) Can't be determined
(D) None of the above
85. Vikas is twice as good a workman as Suresh
and is therefore able to finish a piece of
work in 30 days less than Suresh. In how
many days they can complete the whole
work; working together?
(A) 40 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 10 days
14
86. When twice the original number is divided
by the same divisor, the remainder is 11.
What is the value of the divisor?
(A) 33
(B) 35
(C) 37
(D) 39
87. A bus can travel 50% faster than a car. Both
start from point A at the same time and reach
point B 75 kms away from A at the same
time. On the way, however, the bus lost
about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the
bus-stops. The speed of the car is:
(A) 120 kmph
(B) 130 kmph
(C) 140 kmph
(D) 150 kmph
88. The simple interest on a certain sum for
8 months at 4% per annum is Rs. 129 less
than the simple interest on the same sum for
15 months at 5% per annum. The sum is:
(A) Rs 3500
(B) Rs 3600
(C) Rs 3700
(D) Rs 3800
89. A spherical metal ball of radius 6 cm is
melted and small metal balls of radius 3 mm
are made. The total number of possible small
metal balls is
(A) 7000
(B) 8000
(C) 9000
(D) 10000
90. If the cost price of 120 apples is equal to
the selling price of 100 apples, what is the
profit percent in this transaction?
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
91. In which of the following form, data is stored
in computer ?
(A) Decimal
(B) Binary
(C) Hexa Decimal
(D) Octal
92. A word processor can be used to
(A) Write text
(B) Edit text
(C) Print text
(D) All of these
93. General purpose computer are used for
(A) Creating a small database
(B) Performs calculation
(C) Accounting
(D) All of the above
94. Which of the following is NOT associated
with Computers?
(A) Screen
(B) Mouse
(C) Bit
(D) Pencil
15 [P.T.O.
95. The basic goal of computer process is to
convert data into
(A) Graphs
(B) Files
(C) Tables
(D) Information
96. Ctrl, shift and alt are called _____ keys?
(A) Adjustment
(B) Alphanumeric
(C) Function
(D) Modifier
97. Computers that are portable and convenient
for users who travel are known as?
(A) Laptops
(B) File servers
(C) Supercomputers
(D) Minicomputers
98. Junk e-mail is also called ______?
(A) Spam
(B) Spoof
(C) Sniffer script
(D) Spool
99. By default, your documents print in
________ mode
(A) Landscape
(B) Portrait
(C) Page setup
(D) Print view
100. ____________ are attempts by individuals
to obtain confidential information from you
by falsifying their identity?
(A) Phishing trips
(B) Computer viruses
(C) Phishing scams
(D) Spyware scams
16
ROUGH WORK
8 Accountant
Sr. no.
Answer
Sr. no.
Answer
Sr. no.
Answer
Sr. no.
Answer
1
B
26
C
51
B
76
D
2
D
27
D
52
B
77
C
3
A
28
C
53
A
78
B
4
C
29
A
54
B
79
B
5
A
30
C
55
A
80
A
6
D
31
C
56
A
81
A
7
B
32
C
57
D
82
B
8
A
33
A
58
D
83
D
9
A
34
D
59
D
84
C
10
B
35
D
60
A
85
C
11
D
36
D
61
A
86
C
12
A
37
D
62
D
87
A
13
B
38
C
63
A
88
B
14
D
39
A
64
D
89
B
15
D
40
D
65
D
90
D
16
B
41
D
66
B
91
B
17
D
42
D
67
C
92
D
18
D
43
B
68
A
93
D
19
A
44
C
69
C
94
D
20
B
45
A
70
D
95
D
21
C
46
A
71
A
96
C
22
B
47
D
72
D
97
A
23
B
48
A
73
B
98
A
24
C
49
D
74
B
99
B
25
D
50
B
75
A
100
C
